[UPDATED] ISACA CCAK Certification Exam Questions
Quickly and Easily Pass ISACA Exam with CCAK real Dumps
The CCAK certification program is designed for professionals in the IT industry who are interested in cloud auditing and want to enhance their knowledge and skills. The program is ideal for those who are working in an audit, risk, or compliance role, or those who are interested in moving into these areas. The CCAK certification program is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers in the industry.
The CCAK Certification Exam is the first of its kind in the industry, and was developed by ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association), a global organization that provides education, certification, and advocacy for cybersecurity and IT governance professionals. CCAK exam covers a range of cloud computing topics, including cloud service models, security and privacy, risk management, compliance, and more.
NEW QUESTION # 20
What areas should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud?
- A. Identity and access management (IAM) and data protection
- B. Patching and configuration
- C. Source code reviews and hypervisor
- D. Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews
Answer: A
Explanation:
Identity and access management (IAM) and data protection are the areas that should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud, as they are the key aspects of cloud security and compliance that affect both the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. IAM and data protection refer to the methods and techniques that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and resources in the cloud environment. IAM involves the use of credentials, policies, roles, permissions, and tokens to verify the identity and access rights of users or devices. Data protection involves the use of encryption, backup, recovery, deletion, and retention to protect data from unauthorized access, modification, loss, or disclosure123.
Patching and configuration (A) are not the areas that should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud, as they are not the key aspects of cloud security and compliance that affect both the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. Patching and configuration refer to the processes and practices that ensure the security, reliability, and performance of the cloud infrastructure, platform, or software. Patching involves the use of updates or fixes to address vulnerabilities, bugs, errors, or exploits that may compromise or affect the functionality of the cloud components. Configuration involves the use of settings or parameters to customize or optimize the functionality of the cloud components. Patching and configuration are mainly under the responsibility of the cloud service provider, as they own and operate the cloud infrastructure, platform, or software. The cloud service customer has limited or no access or control over these aspects123.
Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews (B) are not the areas that should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud, as they are not specific or measurable aspects of cloud security and compliance that can be easily audited or tested. Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews refer to the processes and practices that identify, assess, treat, monitor, and report on the risks that affect the security posture of an organization or a domain. Vulnerability management involves the use of tools or techniques to scan, analyze, prioritize, remediate, or mitigate vulnerabilities that may expose an organization or a domain to threats or attacks. Cyber security reviews involve the use of tools or techniques to evaluate, measure, benchmark, or improve the security capabilities or maturity of an organization or a domain. Vulnerability management and cyber security reviews are general or broad terms that encompass various aspects of cloud security and compliance, such as IAM, data protection, patching, configuration, etc. Therefore, they are not specific or measurable areas that can be audited or tested individually123.
Source code reviews and hypervisor (D) are not the areas that should be reviewed when auditing a public cloud, as they are not relevant or accessible aspects of cloud security and compliance for most cloud service customers. Source code reviews refer to the processes and practices that examine the source code of software applications or systems to identify errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, or inefficiencies that may affect their quality, functionality, or security. Hypervisor refers to the software that allows the creation and management of virtual machines on a physical server. Source code reviews and hypervisor are mainly under the responsibility of the cloud service provider, as they own and operate the software applications or systems that deliver cloud services. The cloud service customer has no access or control over these aspects123. References :=
* Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards ...
* Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards ...
* Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
NEW QUESTION # 21
A dot release of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) indicates:
- A. a revision of the CCM domain structure.
- B. the introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls.
- C. a technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is smaller than 10% compared to the previous full release.
- D. technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A dot release of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) indicates a technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is smaller than 10% compared to the previous full release. A dot release is a minor update to the CCM that reflects the feedback from the cloud security community and the changes in the cloud technology landscape. A dot release does not change the domain structure or the overall scope of the CCM, but rather improves the clarity, accuracy, and relevance of the existing controls. A dot release is denoted by a decimal number after the major version number, such as CCM v4.1 or CCM v4.2. The current version of the CCM is v4.0, which was released in October 20211.
The other options are incorrect because:
A: a revision of the CCM domain structure: A revision of the CCM domain structure is a major change that affects the organization and categorization of the controls into different domains. A revision of the CCM domain structure requires a full release, not a dot release, and is denoted by an integer number, such as CCM v3 or CCM v42.
C: the introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls: The introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls is an additional feature that enhances the usability and applicability of the CCM. The introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls does not require a dot release or a full release, but rather an update to the mapping table that shows the relationship between the CCM controls and other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks3.
D: technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release: A technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release is a significant change that affects the content and scope of the CCM. A technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release requires a full release, not a dot release, and is denoted by an integer number, such as CCM v3 or CCM v42.
References:
Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) V4: Raising the cloud security bar
Cloud Security Alliance Releases New Cloud Controls Matrix Auditing Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 22
An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.
Which of the following should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider's burden?
- A. The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process.
- B. The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry
- C. The provider can schedule a call with each customer.
- D. The provider can answer each customer individually.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The CSA STAR registry is a publicly accessible registry that documents the security and privacy controls provided by popular cloud computing offerings1 The registry is designed for users of cloud services to assess their cloud providers' security and compliance posture, including the regulations, standards, and frameworks they adhere to1 The registry also promotes industry transparency and reduces complexity and costs for both providers and customers2 The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry, as this would be the best recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. By publishing to the registry, the provider can show current and potential customers their security and compliance posture, without having to fill out multiple customer questionnaires or requests for proposal (RFPs)2 The provider can also leverage the different levels of assurance available in the registry, such as self-assessment, third-party audit, or certification, to demonstrate their security maturity and trustworthiness1 The provider can also benefit from the CSA Trusted Cloud Providers program, which recognizes providers that have fulfilled additional training and volunteer requirements with CSA, demonstrating their commitment to cloud security competency and industry best practices3 The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because the provider can schedule a call with each customer is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Scheduling a call with each customer would be time-consuming, inefficient, and impractical, especially if the provider receives multiple inquiries and RFPs every month. Scheduling a call would also not guarantee that the customer would be satisfied with the provider's security and compliance posture, as they may still request additional information or evidence. Scheduling a call would also not help the provider differentiate themselves from other providers in the market, as they may not be able to showcase their security maturity and trustworthiness effectively.
Option B is not correct because the provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Sharing all security reports with customers may not be feasible, as some reports may contain sensitive or confidential information that should not be disclosed to external parties. Sharing all security reports may also not be desirable, as some reports may be outdated, incomplete, or inconsistent, which could undermine the provider's credibility and reputation. Sharing all security reports may also not be effective, as some customers may not have the expertise or resources to review and understand them properly.
Option C is not correct because the provider can answer each customer individually is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Answering each customer individually would be tedious, repetitive, and costly, as the provider would have to provide similar or identical information to different customers over and over again. Answering each customer individually would also not ensure that the provider's security and compliance posture is consistent and accurate, as they may make mistakes or omissions in their responses. Answering each customer individually would also not help the provider stand out from other providers in the market, as they may not be able to highlight their security achievements and certifications.
References: 1: STAR | CSA 2: Why your cloud services need the CSA STAR Registry listing 3: STAR Registry | CSA
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is the PRIMARY area for an auditor to examine in order to understand the criticality of the cloud services in an organization, along with their dependencies and risks?
- A. Turtle diagram
- B. Contractual documents of the cloud service provider
- C. Heat maps
- D. Data security process flow
Answer: C
Explanation:
Heat maps are graphical representations of data that use color-coding to show the relative intensity, frequency, or magnitude of a variable1. Heat maps can be used to visualize the criticality of the cloud services in an organization, along with their dependencies and risks, by mapping the cloud services to different dimensions, such as business impact, availability, security, performance, cost, etc. Heat maps can help auditors identify the most important or vulnerable cloud services, as well as the relationships and trade-offs among them2.
For example, Azure Charts provides heat maps for various aspects of Azure cloud services, such as updates, trends, pillars, areas, geos, categories, etc3. These heat maps can help auditors understand the current state and dynamics of Azure cloud services and compare them across different dimensions4.
Contractual documents of the cloud service provider are the legal agreements that define the terms and conditions of the cloud service, including the roles, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved.
They may provide some information on the criticality of the cloud services in an organization, but they are not as visual or comprehensive as heat maps. Data security process flow is a diagram that shows the steps and activities involved in protecting data from unauthorized access, use, modification, or disclosure. It may help auditors understand the data security controls and risks of the cloud services in an organization, but it does not cover other aspects of criticality, such as business impact or performance. Turtle diagram is a tool that helps analyze a process by showing its inputs, outputs, resources, criteria, methods, and interactions. It may help auditors understand the process flow and dependencies of the cloud services in an organization, but it does not show the relative importance or risks of each process element.
References:
* What is a Heat Map? Definition from WhatIs.com1, section on Heat Map
* Cloud Computing Security Considerations | Cyber.gov.au2, section on Cloud service criticality
* Azure Charts - Clarity for the Cloud3, section on Heat Maps
* Azure Services Overview4, section on Heat Maps
* Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist | Trust Center, section on How to use the checklist
* Data Security Process Flow - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, section on Data Security Process Flow
* What is a Turtle Diagram? Definition from WhatIs.com, section on Turtle Diagram
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following cloud environments should be a concern to an organization s cloud auditor?
- A. The technical team is trained on only one vendor Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) platform, but the organization has subscribed to another vendor's laaS platform as an alternative.
- B. The failover region of the cloud service provider is on another continent
- C. The organization entirely depends on several proprietary Software as a Service (SaaS) applications.
- D. The cloud service provider s data center is more than 100 miles away.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This situation poses a significant concern for a cloud auditor because it indicates a potential gap in the technical team's ability to effectively manage and secure the IaaS platform provided by the alternative vendor. Without proper training on the specific features, security practices, and operational procedures of the new platform, the organization may face increased risks of misconfiguration, security vulnerabilities, and inefficiencies in cloud operations. It is crucial for the technical team to have a comprehensive understanding of all platforms in use to ensure they can maintain the security and performance standards required for a robust cloud environment.
Reference = The concern is based on common cloud auditing challenges, such as controlling and monitoring user access, and ensuring the IT team is equipped to manage the cloud environment effectively12. Additionally, best practices suggest that network segmentation, user authentication, and access control are critical areas to address in a cloud audit3. These principles are widely recognized in the field of cloud security and compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?
- A. Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines
- B. Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines
- C. Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations
- D. Separation of production and development pipelines
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Role-based access control (RBAC) is a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles of individual users within an organization1 RBAC can help ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment, as it can limit the permissions and actions that each user can perform on the pipeline resources, such as code, secrets, environments, etc. RBAC can also help enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2 The other options are not correct because:
Option A is not correct because ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines is not sufficient to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Segregation of duties is a practice that aims to prevent fraud, errors, or conflicts of interest by dividing responsibilities among different people or teams3 However, segregation of duties does not necessarily limit the number of people who can access the pipeline resources, as it depends on how the roles and permissions are defined and assigned. Segregation of duties is also more relevant for preventing unauthorized changes or deployments to the production environment, rather than restricting access to it4 Option B is not correct because periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations is not a proactive measure to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Audit logs are records of events or activities that occur within a system or process5 Audit logs can help monitor and detect any unauthorized or suspicious access to the pipeline resources, but they cannot prevent or restrict such access in the first place. Audit logs are also dependent on the frequency and quality of the review process, which may not be timely or effective enough to mitigate the risks of access violations6 Option D is not correct because separation of production and development pipelines is not a direct way to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Separation of production and development pipelines is a practice that aims to isolate and protect the production environment from any potential errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that may arise from the development process. However, separation of pipelines does not automatically imply restriction of access, as it depends on how the roles and permissions are configured for each pipeline.
Separation of pipelines may also introduce challenges such as synchronization, coordination, and communication among the pipeline teams and stakeholders.
References: 1: Wikipedia. Role-based access control - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed:
14-Apr-2023]. 2: Microsoft Learn. Set pipeline permissions - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn.
[Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: Investopedia. Segregation Of Duties Definition - Investopedia.com Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Cider Security. Insufficient PBAC (Pipeline-Based Access Controls) - Cider Security Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5:
Wikipedia. Audit trail - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Microsoft Learn.
Securing Azure Pipelines - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
AWS DevOps Blog. How to implement CI/CD with AWS CodePipeline - AWS DevOps Blog | Amazon Web Services Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. : LambdaTest. What Is Parallel Testing?
with Example - LambdaTest Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
NEW QUESTION # 26
DevSecOps aims to integrate security tools and processes directly into the software development life cycle and should be done:
- A. at the beginning of the development cycle.
- B. at the end of the development cycle.
- C. in all development steps.
- D. after go-live.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CCAK Study Guide, the business continuity management and operational resilience strategy of the cloud customer should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider, as they share the responsibility for ensuring the availability and recoverability of the cloud services. The strategy should cover all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption. These activities include prevention, mitigation, response, recovery, restoration, and improvement. The strategy should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the communication channels and escalation procedures, the testing and exercising plans, and the review and update mechanisms1 The other options are not correct because:
* Option B is not correct because the strategy should not only be developed within the acceptable limits of the risk appetite, but also aligned with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations of both parties. The risk appetite is only one of the factors that influence the strategy formulation1
* Option C is not correct because the strategy should not only cover the activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, but also consider the activities for before and after a disruption, such as prevention, mitigation, improvement, etc. The strategy should also include other elements such as roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing plans, etc1 References: 1: ISACA, Cloud Security Alliance. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide. 2021. pp. 83-84.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Since CCM allows cloud customers to build a detailed list of requirements and controls to be implemented by the CSP as part of their overall third-party risk management and procurement program, will CCM alone be enough to define all the items to be considered when operating/using cloud services?
- A. No. CCM can serve as a foundation for a cloud assessment program, but it needs to be completed with requirements applicable to each company.
- B. No. CCM must be completed with definitions established by the CSP because of its relevance to service continuity.
- C. Yes. When implemented in the right manner. CCM alone can help to measure, assess and monitor the risk associated with a CSP or a particular service.
- D. Yes. CCM suffices since it maps a huge library of widely accepted frameworks.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 28
The effect of which of the following should have priority in planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit?
- A. Organizational policies and procedures
- B. Applicable statutory requirements
- C. Applicable corporate standards
- D. Applicable industry good practices
Answer: B
Explanation:
The effect of applicable statutory requirements should have priority in planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, as they are the mandatory and enforceable rules that govern the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. Statutory requirements may vary depending on the jurisdiction, industry, or sector of the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, as well as the type, location, and sensitivity of the data processed or stored in the cloud. Statutory requirements may include laws, regulations, standards, or codes that relate to data protection, privacy, security, compliance, governance, taxation, or liability. The cloud auditor should identify and understand the applicable statutory requirements that affect the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, and assess whether they are met and adhered to by both parties. The cloud auditor should also verify that the contractual terms and conditions between the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer reflect and comply with the applicable statutory requirements123.
Applicable industry good practices (A) are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Industry good practices are the recommended or accepted methods or techniques for achieving a desired outcome or result in a specific domain or context. Industry good practices may include frameworks, guidelines, principles, or best practices that are developed by professional bodies, associations, or organizations that have expertise or authority in a certain field or area. Industry good practices may help the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer to improve their performance, quality, efficiency, or effectiveness in delivering or using cloud services. However, industry good practices are not mandatory or enforceable, and they may vary or change over time depending on the evolution of technology or business needs123.
Organizational policies and procedures © are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Organizational policies and procedures are the internal rules and guidelines that define the objectives, expectations, and responsibilities of an organization regarding its operations, activities, processes, or functions. Organizational policies and procedures may include mission statements, vision statements, values statements, strategies, goals, plans, standards, manuals, handbooks, or instructions that are specific to an organization. Organizational policies and procedures may help the organization to align its actions and decisions with its purpose and direction, as well as to ensure consistency and accountability among its members or stakeholders. However, organizational policies and procedures are not mandatory or enforceable outside the organization, and they may differ or conflict among different organizations123.
Applicable corporate standards (D) are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Corporate standards are the internal rules and guidelines that define the minimum level of quality, performance, reliability, or compatibility that an organization expects from its products, services, processes, or systems. Corporate standards may include specifications, criteria, metrics, indicators, benchmarks, or baselines that are specific to an organization. Corporate standards may help the organization to measure and evaluate its outputs or outcomes against its objectives or expectations, as well as to identify and address any gaps or issues that may arise. However, corporate standards are not mandatory or enforceable outside the organization, and they may differ or conflict among different organizations123. Reference := Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
NEW QUESTION # 29
The MOST important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the:
- A. effectiveness of the controls.
- B. risk ownership
- C. risk reporting.
- D. shared responsibility model.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the shared responsibility model. The shared responsibility model is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of cloud service providers (CSPs) and cloud customers (CCs) in ensuring the security and compliance of cloud computing environments. The shared responsibility model helps to clarify which security tasks are handled by the CSP and which tasks are handled by the CC, depending on the type of cloud service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and the specific contractual agreements. The shared responsibility model also helps to avoid gaps or overlaps in security controls, and to allocate resources and accountability accordingly12.
Reference:
Shared responsibility in the cloud - Microsoft Azure
Understanding the Shared Responsibilities Model in Cloud Services - ISACA
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is a fundamental concept of FedRAMP that intends to save costs, time, and staff conducting superfluous agency security assessments?
- A. Use existing, provide many times
- B. Do once, use many times
- C. Use often, provide many times
- D. Be economical, act deliberately
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 31
What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?
- A. A waterfall model to move resources through the development to release phases
- B. Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits
- C. Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems
- D. Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The shift-left concept of code release cycles is an approach that moves testing, quality, and performance evaluation early in the development process, often before any code is written. The goal of shift-left testing is to anticipate and resolve software defects, bugs, errors, and vulnerabilities as soon as possible, reducing the cost and time of fixing them later in the production stage. To achieve this, shift-left testing relies on automation tools and techniques that enable continuous integration, continuous delivery, and continuous deployment of code. Automation also facilitates collaboration and feedback among developers, testers, security experts, and other stakeholders throughout the development lifecycle. Therefore, the incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles. References The 'Shift Left' Is A Growing Theme For Cloud Cybersecurity In 2022 Shift left vs shift right: A DevOps mystery solved How to shift left with continuous integration
NEW QUESTION # 32
DevSecOps aims to integrate security tools and processes directly into the software development life cycle and should be done:
- A. at the beginning of the development cycle.
- B. at the end of the development cycle.
- C. in all development steps.
- D. after go-live.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CCAK Study Guide, the business continuity management and operational resilience strategy of the cloud customer should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider, as they share the responsibility for ensuring the availability and recoverability of the cloud services. The strategy should cover all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption. These activities include prevention, mitigation, response, recovery, restoration, and improvement. The strategy should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the communication channels and escalation procedures, the testing and exercising plans, and the review and update mechanisms1 The other options are not correct because:
Option B is not correct because the strategy should not only be developed within the acceptable limits of the risk appetite, but also aligned with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations of both parties. The risk appetite is only one of the factors that influence the strategy formulation1 Option C is not correct because the strategy should not only cover the activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, but also consider the activities for before and after a disruption, such as prevention, mitigation, improvement, etc. The strategy should also include other elements such as roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing plans, etc1 References: 1: ISACA, Cloud Security Alliance. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide. 2021. pp. 83-84.
NEW QUESTION # 33
A cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when:
- A. the probability of error must be objectively quantified.
- B. generalized audit software is unavailable.
- C. the tolerable error rate cannot be determined.
- D. the auditor wants to avoid sampling risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, a cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when the probability of error must be objectively quantified1. Statistical sampling is a sampling technique that uses random selection methods and mathematical calculations to draw conclusions about the population from the sample results. Statistical sampling allows the auditor to measure the sampling risk, which is the risk that the sample results do not represent the population, and to express the confidence level and precision of the sample1. Statistical sampling also enables the auditor to estimate the rate of exceptions or errors in the population based on the sample1.
The other options are not valid reasons for using statistical sampling rather than judgment sampling. Option A is irrelevant, as generalized audit software is a tool that can facilitate both statistical and judgment sampling, but it is not a requirement for either technique. Option B is incorrect, as statistical sampling does not avoid sampling risk, but rather measures and controls it. Option D is illogical, as the tolerable error rate is a parameter that must be determined before conducting any sampling technique, whether statistical or judgmental. Reference:
ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 17-18.
NEW QUESTION # 34
In an organization, how are policy violations MOST likely to occur?
- A. Deliberately by the cloud provider
- B. Deliberately by the ISP
- C. By accident
- D. Deliberately
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 35
What is below the waterline in the context of cloud operationalization?
- A. The controls operated by the cloud service provider
- B. The controls operated by the cloud access security broker (CASB)
- C. The controls operated by the customer
- D. The controls operated by both
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the context of cloud operationalization, "below the waterline" refers to the aspects of cloud services that are managed and controlled by the cloud service provider (CSP) rather than the customer. This analogy is often used to describe the shared responsibility model in cloud computing, where the CSP is responsible for the infrastructure's security and stability, akin to the submerged part of an iceberg that supports the structure above water. The customer, on the other hand, is responsible for managing the controls and security measures
"above the waterline," which include the applications, data, and access management they deploy in the cloud environment.
References = The information provided is based on standard cloud computing models and the shared responsibility concept, which is a fundamental principle discussed in cloud auditing and security literature, including the CCAK curriculum and related resources1.
NEW QUESTION # 36
When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?
- A. Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance and reputation of the organization.
- B. Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability of the information system.
- C. Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.
- D. Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, for maintenance of several items ensuring continuity and availability of operations and support personnel. Which of the following controls BEST matches this control description?
- A. System Development Maintenance
- B. System Maintenance
- C. Equipment Maintenance
- D. Operations Maintenance
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is a good candidate for continuous auditing?
- A. Cryptography and authentication
- B. Governance
- C. Procedures
- D. Documentation quality
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cryptography and authentication are good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are critical aspects of cloud security that require constant monitoring and verification. Cryptography and authentication refer to the methods and techniques that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and communications in the cloud environment. Cryptography involves the use of encryption algorithms and keys to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. Authentication involves the use of credentials and tokens to verify the identity and access rights of users or devices. Continuous auditing can help to assess the effectiveness and compliance of cryptography and authentication controls, such as data encryption, key management, password policies, multifactor authentication, single sign-on, etc. Continuous auditing can also help to detect and alert any anomalies or issues that may compromise or affect cryptography and authentication, such as data breaches, key leakage, password cracking, unauthorized access, etc123.
Procedures (A) are not good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are not specific or measurable aspects of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Procedures refer to the steps or actions that are performed to achieve a certain objective or result in a specific domain or context. Procedures may vary depending on the type, nature, or complexity of the task or process involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Procedures may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess their effectiveness or compliance123.
Governance (B) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Governance refers to the framework or system that defines the roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, procedures, and practices for managing and overseeing an organization or a domain. Governance may involve multiple stakeholders, such as management, board of directors, regulators, auditors, customers, etc., who have different interests, expectations, or perspectives. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Governance may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123.
Documentation quality (D) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Documentation quality refers to the degree to which the documents that describe or support an organization or a domain are accurate, complete, consistent, relevant, and understandable. Documentation quality may depend on various factors, such as the purpose, audience, format, style, language, structure, content, etc., of the documents involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Documentation quality may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123. Reference := Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
NEW QUESTION # 39
A cloud auditor should use statistical sampling rather than judgment (nonstatistical) sampling when:
- A. the probability of error must be objectively quantified.
- B. generalized audit software is unavailable.
- C. the tolerable error rate cannot be determined.
- D. the auditor wants to avoid sampling risk.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure effective operationalization of cloud security controls?
- A. Assessing existing risks
- B. Identifying business requirements
- C. Training and awareness
- D. Comparing different control frameworks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Effective operationalization of cloud security controls is highly dependent on the level of training and awareness among the staff who implement and manage these controls. Without proper understanding and awareness of security policies, procedures, and the specific controls in place, even the most sophisticated security measures can be rendered ineffective. Training ensures that the personnel are equipped with the necessary knowledge to perform their duties securely, while awareness programs help in maintaining a security-conscious culture within the organization.
References = This answer is supported by the CCAK materials which highlight the importance of training and awareness in cloud security. The Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) also emphasizes the need for security education and the role it plays in the successful implementation of security controls1234.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?
- A. Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines.
- B. Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines.
- C. Separation of production and development pipelines.
- D. Periodic review of the Cl/CD pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
Prioritizing assurance activities for an organization's cloud services portfolio depends PRIMARILY on an organization's ability to:
- A. schedule frequent reviews with high-risk cloud service providers.
- B. maintain a comprehensive cloud service inventory.
- C. develop plans using a standardized risk-based approach.
- D. collate views from various business functions using cloud services.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 43
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